So I’ve got a pair of Audio Technica ath-m50’s ( the older ones, not the ath-m50x) and just recently I realized that there impedance (38ohm) is lower than the rytms headphone output impedance (55ohm), and my mixers (120ohm), and not sure about OT (not stated but am guessing it’s similar to rytm).
From what I understand in audio things usually travel from lower impedance to higher.
After doing a bunch of research, it is generally recommended for a headphones impedance to be 8 times higher than the source output.
So what about these phones being actually lower impedance than the source output?
From my research it seems that what happens is the electrical dampening of the audio no longer takes place and instead the phones are dampened according to there own impedance curve, changing the frequency response.
What I can’t find out is if these phones were designed knowing this and still perform optimally with higher impedance outputs.
Some info even suggests amplifier damage by plugging in phones of too low impedance to higher impedance outputs.
With the ath m50s being so popular it seems like all this would have been thought about, but I’m curious to understand.
Anyone?
Edit: As I was typing this I realized I should just email Audio Technica, but still something to chew on and I can post back with thier answer…