I think this whole argument is quite ridiculous, of course a paraphonic synth can play notes polyphonically when each note starts and ends simultaneously, but that still does not qualify it to be called polyphonic, because the notes are not able to fully articulate individually, and more importantly each voice isn’t duplicated in its entirety, as is the case with true polyphonic synths.
If you are going to argue the case for paraphonic synths to be termed polyphonic then you might as well pretend that legato mode doesn’t exist in monosynths either, because that is exactly just as stupid.
These terms exist and have existed for a long time, for a reason, to allow people to differentiate between them, I don’t understand the reasoning behind wrongly using accurate descriptors.
Oh and lemons and oranges are the same, except nope they really aren’t.
I quite like Marc Doty, but this is just daft IMHO.
Edited: For clarity